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The most reliable sign of bowel viability during laparotomy for intestinal obstruction is return of:
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A 40-year-old female presented with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation of 48 hours- duration. She gave a history of previous laparotomy and examination revealed abdominal distension with loud bowel sounds. The most probable diagnosis is:
A 4-year-old boy sustained fractures of the left tenth and eleventh ribs with signs of intraperitoneal hemorrhage. Exploratory laparotomy revealed a laceration of the lower part of the spleen. The best procedure is:
Bleeding internal hemorrhoids during the first 6 months of pregnancy are best treated by:
Concerning internal piles, the following statements are correct except that they:
The complications of chronic anal fissure include the following except:
The following statements about anal fissure are true except that it:
Kultschitzsky cells are commonly found in:
In children and adolescents, the commonest cause of intestinal obstruction is:
Fundoplication is the major step in surgical treatment of:
Which of the following is most likely to require surgical correction?
As regard dysphagia in achalasia of the cardia, choose the right answer:
Most common cause of massive lower GI bleeding:
Which of the following statements regarding the etiology of obstructive jaundice is true?
Esophageal manometry is a tool to measure:
Which of the following statements regarding appendicitis during pregnancy is correct?
During an appendectomy for acute appendicitis, a 4-cm mass is found in the midportion of the appendix. Frozen section reveals this lesion to be a carcinoid tumor. Which of the following statements is true?
16-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department complaining of pain in the abdomen that started from the umbilical region and later shifted to the right lower ab\domen. He also has anorexia, nausea and fever. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on investigations?
A previously healthy 15-yearold boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of about 12 h of progressive anorexia, nausea, andpain of the right lower quadrant. On physical examination, he is found to have a rectal temperature of 38.18°C (100.58°F) and has direct and rebound abdominal tenderness localizing to McBurney's point as well as involuntary guarding in the right lower quadrant. At operation through a McBurney-type incision, the appendix and cecum are found to be normal, but the surgeon is impressed with the marked edema of the terminal ileum, which also has an overlying fibrinopurulent exudate. The correct procedure is to:
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